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Can the tax paid per your payslips up to 28 Feb be more than tax populated per IRP5?

Posted 6 January 2016 under Tax Q&A


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TaxAngel says:
6 January 2016 at 15:00

Is there a legitimate reason why total tax paid by the entity as at 28 February per payslip would be more than the amount stated on the IRP5?

This entry was posted in Tax Q&A and tagged . Bookmark the permalink.

TaxTim TaxTim says:
6 January 2016 at 18:55

No, the total PAYE paid for the year per your payslips should be equal to the PAYE reflected on your IRP5. It would be best to query this difference with your HR/ payroll administrator.


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