Why would an employer put the same amount on code 4005, 4474 and 3810 yet I contribute 100% to own my medical aid? The deductions are directly subtracted from my CTC and the company contributes 0% and therefore I don't have any fringe benefit.
There should not be anything for 3810 and 4474, are there amounts there? Only 4005 should be shown unless the company contributes. However if it is part of your CTC and over and above your normal salary then it is still a fringe benefit.
Your cost to company though includes the medical aid which either they can pay it to you or they pay it for you. In a sense your company is providing a fringe benefit which you would be taxed on regardless of who pays it.
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